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The question given below consists of a statement, followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are ‘strong’ arguments and which is/are ‘weak’ arguments and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each question. Statement: State-run Energy Efficiency Services (EESL) has scrapped its second tender for procurement of 10,000 electric cars as the industry awaits clarification on specifications for chargers which will allow higher end, luxury automakers to come into the picture. This tender was floated in April and had been on hold after a preliminary pre-bid meeting. A similar tender was floated in August last year, and the rollout of 10,000 cars under the tender was expected to be completed by March 2019.  Why is EESL scraping the tender for procurement of 10,000 electric cars? Arguments: I. The share of luxury cars could go further up since it would be a good way of aggregating demand, Kumar said. This, however, strictly depends on the final order from DST. II. The tender had set aside 20% share of the total order for higher end and upgraded sedans category, which would allow foreign automakers like Nissan, Hyundai, Kia Motors to drive away with a fair share of the tender.  III. EESL said that the company has been awaiting clarification from the Department of Science & Technology (DST) to issue the standard norms for charging stations because of which the tender was first put on hold and now has been scrapped entirely.
1. A Judicial Magistrate First Class can authorize the detention in custody, of a person accused of an offence triable by Special Court established under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, for a period not exceeding fifteen years.
2. The Special Court established under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, cannot exercise the power to authorize the detention of accused in custody, as enunciated under Section 167 of Code of Criminal Procedure.
3. The definition of 'use' under Section 2(xxviii-a) of The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, excludes personal consumption of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances.
4. The High Court, by special order, may constitute as many Special Courts under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, as necessary.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Choice the correct propositions:
1. Evidence of fingerprint expert is substantive evidence.
2. Evidence of fingerprint expert can be used only to corroborate some items of substantive evidence which are otherwise on record.
3. Evidence of fingerprint expert is not substantive evidence.
4. Evidence of fingerprint expert is admissible in all circumstances as expert evidence.
Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament shall, while a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, have the power to make laws of the whole or any part of territory of India with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the list
2. Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List
3. Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country
4. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest subject to the resolution passed by the Council of States by two-thirds majority
Which of these statements are correct?
Select the incorrect statements:
1. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to arbitration proceedings.
2. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to proceedings before a Commissioner appointed by the court for recording evidence
3. The Indian Evidence Act applies to affidavits presented to Courts
4. The Indian Evidence Act applies to judicial proceedings held before all kinds of military courts
Any person, who has accepted a tender of pardon made under Section 306 or Section 307, has, either by willfully concealing anything essential or by giving false evidence, not complied with the condition on which the tender was made. Who will certify this fact?
Statement A: The presumption under Section 113-A of Indian Evidence Act is not attracted if the marriage took place more than seven years prior to the suicide of woman, even if the cruelty is established by prosecution.
Statement B: By the introduction of Section 113-A of Indian Evidence Act, the prosecution is not required to prove the facts beyond reasonable doubt against the accused.
Which of the statement is correct?
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The presumption under Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act would be attracted, if the marriage of the accused and the deceased took place more than 7 years prior to the suicide of the woman and cruelty soon before death is established by the prosecution.
(B) That because Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence Act is attracted to a case, the prosecution is not required to prove its case beyond reasonable doubt against the accused.
If the prosecution case relates to committing personation which of the following is required by the prosecution to lead evidence to prove?
1. Applying for a voting paper (ballot paper) for giving vote in the name of a person other than the applicant accused
2. Such other person may be dead or alive
3. Applying for voting or vote in the name of a fictitious person
4. Who having voted applies for casting his vote again in the same election
Who is entitled for immunity from prosecution under Section 64A of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985?