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Consider the following statements: The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of the Indian National Movement was that he 1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British. 2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians. 3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of the Indian National Movement was that he 1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British. 2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians. 3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Correct Answer 1 only

The correct answer is 1 only

 Key Points

Contributions of Dadabhai Naoroji

  • Dadabhai Naoroji exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British in his book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India'. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Swami Dayanand, Swami Vivekanand etc. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians, not Dadabhai Naroji. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
  • In pursuit of their agenda for social reform, political rights, and economic regeneration, Indian liberals, including Naoroji, employed a variety of measures. These included educational enterprise, creation of a reading public sphere, formation of political associations, petitions to the Raj administration, counter-preaching, historicism, turning of the defence witnesses, and both upward & downward hermeneutics. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Key Points

  • In 1895 he became a member of the royal commission on India expenditure.
  • In 1893 he helped to form an Indian Parliamentary Committee to attend to Indian interests.

Related Questions

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Doing an internship at the University of Lille in France, I almost always found myself stuck whenever I had to speak to non-Indians about India or on anything'Indian'. This was more because of the subtle differences in the way the French understood India in comparison to what I thought was 'Indian'. For instance, when I,or any Indian for that matter, say 'Hindi' is an Indian language, what it means is that it is one of the languages widely spoken in India. This need not be similar tothe understanding that the French would have when they hear of 'Hindi' as an Indian language. Because for them Hindi then becomes the only language spoken inIndia. This is a natural inference that the French, Germans, Italians and many other European nationals would tend to make, because that is generally how it is intheir own respective countries. The risk of such inappropriate generalisations made about 'Indian' is not restricted to language alone but also for India's landscape,cuisine, movies, music, climate, economic development and even political ideologies. The magnitude of diversity of one European country can be easily compared tothat of one of the Indian State, isn't it? Can they imagine that India is one country whose diversity can be equated to that of the entire European continent? Theonus is upon us to go ahead and clarify the nuances in 'Indianness' while we converse. But why should one do so? How does it even matter to clarify? Why do some French people think that Hindi is the only Indian language?