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A 34-year-old woman complaints about pain due to lower abdominal cramping, urine hCG is positive and pelvic ultrasound reveals a 10-week intrauterine pregnancy. The patient states that she is not sure whether to keep the pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 34-year-old woman complaints about pain due to lower abdominal cramping, urine hCG is positive and pelvic ultrasound reveals a 10-week intrauterine pregnancy. The patient states that she is not sure whether to keep the pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? Correct Answer Counsel the patient or refer to an appropriate counselor

Concept:

  • The woman should be referred to the appropriate counselor.
  • Intrauterine pregnancy refers to a pregnancy with a very small fetus. The reason for not being able to see the fetus is either the pregnancy is at an early stage, or the pregnancy is not progressing well.

Explanation:

  • Termination of pregnancy is done in the first trimester of the pregnancy. Medical termination of pregnancy is possible in the above case. The woman should be sure about the decision and hence, send her to the counselor.
  • She is an adult. Therefore, informing parents or the patient's partner, in the above situation is only decided by the woman.

Related Questions

A 22 year old Megha comes to the doctor because of a missed menstrual period. She has hypothyroidism for which she takes thyroxine; she has an artificial heart valve, for which she takes Coumadin, and she recently started tetracycline for acne. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is positive. Which of the following medication should the patient continue to take during pregnancy?
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What will be the last step for this input ?
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S1: The tooth had abscessed and was causing considerable pain.
P: Finally, in desperation, she went inside a wooden pyramid model and sat down praying for miracles.
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S: Common pain killers had been of no avail.
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The Proper sequence should be:
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