With reference to Indian Civil Services, which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 1. Government of India Act, 1919 provided for a separate examination for the Indian Civil Service, which was to be held in India. 2. In the Indian Civil Service in 1941, the percentage of Indians was more as compared to the Europeans. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

With reference to Indian Civil Services, which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 1. Government of India Act, 1919 provided for a separate examination for the Indian Civil Service, which was to be held in India. 2. In the Indian Civil Service in 1941, the percentage of Indians was more as compared to the Europeans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Correct Answer Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Initially, the examinations for the Indian Civil Service were conducted only in London.
  • It was only after the First World War and the Montagu Chelmsford reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) that this was agreed to. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • From 1922 onwards the Indian Civil Service Examination began to be held in India also, first in Allahabad and later in Delhi with the setting up of the Federal Public Service Commission.
  • Further, the Government of India Act, 1935 envisaged a Public Service Commission for the Federation and a Provincial Public Service Commission for each Province or group of Provinces.
  • Therefore, in the Indian Civil Service in 1941, the percentage of Indians was more as compared to the Europeans. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Related Questions

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Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
Doing an internship at the University of Lille in France, I almost always found myself stuck whenever I had to speak to non-Indians about India or on anything'Indian'. This was more because of the subtle differences in the way the French understood India in comparison to what I thought was 'Indian'. For instance, when I,or any Indian for that matter, say 'Hindi' is an Indian language, what it means is that it is one of the languages widely spoken in India. This need not be similar tothe understanding that the French would have when they hear of 'Hindi' as an Indian language. Because for them Hindi then becomes the only language spoken inIndia. This is a natural inference that the French, Germans, Italians and many other European nationals would tend to make, because that is generally how it is intheir own respective countries. The risk of such inappropriate generalisations made about 'Indian' is not restricted to language alone but also for India's landscape,cuisine, movies, music, climate, economic development and even political ideologies. The magnitude of diversity of one European country can be easily compared tothat of one of the Indian State, isn't it? Can they imagine that India is one country whose diversity can be equated to that of the entire European continent? Theonus is upon us to go ahead and clarify the nuances in 'Indianness' while we converse. But why should one do so? How does it even matter to clarify? According to the writer the responsibility of explaining the facts about India to Europeans rests with?