Let `A=R-{2}` and `B=R-{1}` . If `f: A->B` is a mapping defined by `f(x)=(x-1)/(x-2)` , show that `f` is bijective.

Let `A=R-{2}` and `B=R-{1}` . If `f: A->B` is a mapping defined by `f(x)=(x-1)/(x-2)` , show that `f` is bijective.

Monjur Alahi

4 views

2025-01-04 04:42

1 Answers

Salim Ahmed Kawsar

Correct Answer - `f^(-1)(y)=(2y-1)/(y-1)`

4 views Answered 2023-02-05 15:29

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