Free trade with Britain led to de-industrialization in (up to 1880s) India due to which of the following reasons 1. Free trade was only one-sided as Indian goods were still charged with heavy levies. 2. Indian handmade goods were at disadvantage competing with machine-based British goods. 3. Indian goods were never popular in the western market and Indian weavers had thrived only on the Indian market.?

1 only
2 and 3
1 and 2
1, 2 and 3

LohaHridoy

4 views

2025-01-04 04:42

1 Answers

AhmedNazir

Option 3 : 1 and 2

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

While import to India was free, Indian goods were charged at very high duty (like 66.5% on muslin) in Britain. So, statement 1 is correct.
Industrial Revolution in England made the cost of foreign goods cheaper. So, statement 2 is correct.
Inspite of higher prices Indian goods (especially muslin, silk, etc.) were very popular in England. So, statement 3 is NOT correct.

4 views Answered 2022-09-04 04:29

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